Not sure, that I understand your question. Hitlers interference with the use of the Me 262 was largely
exaggerated (the "Blitzbomber" discussion). Piston engined fighters actually were developed and improved
until the end of the war, see Fw 190/Ta 152, Do 335 and maybe Ta 154. Even the Me 109 was developed
further and further. The number of jet fighters actually used always was low. So, were's the difference
between your scenario and that, what actually happened ? Getting back air superiority ? With sufficient fuel
supply and possibility for enough training to ensure a supply of fully trained pilots, as the allied training
schemes and facilities did. Both things were only partially, if at all dependent on the airforce.
You are asking, if Germany would have had a chance of winning the war by changing decisions with regards
to aviation only to defeat the allied air offensive, that began in earnest in, say, 1942, does I understand
that correctly ?
